Question about ROMSPiracy (Not what you think)

Post » Tue Apr 16, 2013 10:32 am

Warning: This thread was created for the discussion at hand. Any off topic post and post that incriminate anyone of doing something illegal will get this closed, and is not tolerated whatsoever. Please abide by the forum rules when posting and replying in this thread. http://www.gamesas.com/topic/724862-forum-rules-and-general-information/

*Ahem*

My question is this: Why are ROMS illegal if you already own a console and the game you are attempting to emulate on your computer?

Say I own an N64, and Goldeneye 007. I bought both of these things a decade ago when they came out with my money, and that money went to Nintendo.

Ok, so say (I didn't) download ROM and an N64 Emulator. How is this wrong? I already paid and purchased it. I already gave my money to own these things. So wanting to emulate it on my computer, having bought it myself) isn't really morally wrong whatsoever, is it?

I mean, I can obviously see how it's wrong if you did NOT buy an N64, and the game, and then download it. That's basically piracy right? But I'm not pirating because I already purchased it.

Another example. Say Dido comes out an album. I buy that album. 5 years later, I lost that CD. I feel like having that music on my iPod. Is downloading the songs (I didn't) I liked from that album that I have already purchased really wrong at all? If it is, how so? I am not stealing because I already own that which I am downloading. I've already paid my dues. I've already been taxed on it and given my money to the artist. So how/why is this illegal?
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Claire Jackson
 
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