What if the parent or parents...say...have a drug problem that depletes their resources enough that their older children have to skip school to work and feed their younger siblings? In other words, the parents are literally leeching off of their kids (under 18 years old) to support their drug problem...?
That's a good question.
In this case, the parents are clearly extorting their children for money, and that is wrong - but regardless of the circumstances, extortion is a hard problem to identify and control. So I believe we should consider all of our options before we decide whether or not the government specifically should involve itself in this situation.
Unfortunately, I will not be doing that here since
that is probably a very loaded question. But I will consider this: the government is powerful, but the bureaucracy is not discerning. Even now, to determine who qualifies for welfare the government uses clumsy, inaccurate methods to survey the populace and sort those eligible from those that are not. So for an issue that, by my rule of thumb, probably already lies outside of the government's original role of
protecting the people, the government would be an inefficient and possibly ineffectual solution to this problem.
Is an uneducated populace detrimental to a society's citizens?
That depends. In our society, where anyone can have a hand in their government as long as they're older than eighteen, regardless of their background, I would argue that it's definitely detrimental.
On a slightly separate note, however, it's interesting that in the first century of the USA, there were many more requirements to attain voting rights. First, you had to be white, (the racist elements of this restriction SHALL NOT be explored) partly because it was assumed (and to a large degree, correctly so) that anyone with an African heritage were uneducated and therefore unfit to hold a hand in government decisions.
Second, you had to be male. This was due, yet again, to yet another preconfigured construct of society for the time in that women were largely restrained from participating in society as a whole, and so the large majority of them remained uneducated bystanders of the machinations of greater society.
And lastly, you were required the possession of property. This was to prevent people who had no great stake in society from voting, since those people were also assumed to be ignorant of all its complexities.
Now you can take what you will from the obvious societal problems that partly inspired these requirements, but no one can deny that one underlying theme of these rules is the notion of
suppressing the ignorant. The founding fathers were aware of the dangers that an uneducated society could have on any government with democratic elements, and so rather than developing huge, expensive, bureaucratic school systems as part of some brute-forced effort to educate
everyone, they simply raised the barriers to entry and left it at that. Perhaps to a degree we should do the same...?
Again, I'm just playing devil's advocate. This type of thing is interesting to me, because there are so many variables in play that it's easy to make a case either way, IMO.
This is good. I don't mind where you stand on these subjects - we can both have our own opinions as long as we're both dead set on collecting all the data we can, not just on the issues, but on our opposition(s). This stuff
is very interesting, and I appreciate the neutral point-of-view you are holding for the purposes of this discussion.
I also want to assure you that I don't pretend to know everything about these things, and I agree with you in that there are
many variables in play here that make it difficult to devise any solutions for these problems.